Did Amedeo of Aosta renounce his succession rights to the italian throne when he accepted the spanish throne ?
It would be too risky since in the house of Savoy, there were just 3 other males: his brother Umberto I and his only son Vittorio-Emmanuelle (III) aged 1 y.old, and his cousin Tomaso duke of Genoa aged 16.
No one knew then that Umberto would not have any more sons, and V-E might have died before his father.
OTOH, Tomaso was the son of a sick prince and might not reach adulthood.
AFAIK, Tomaso was the spanish first choice for a king, being a child easier to manipulate, but his mother declined in his name, considering becoming king of Spain a too hazardous and dangerous job.
Then the throne was offered to Amedeo.
If Amedeo had renounced his rights in Italy, he got them back when he renounced the spanish throne.
Did he renounce the sp.throne also in the name of his successors (he already had 3 sons) or might we expect the present Duke of Aosta to make a claim for the Madrid throne ?
This seems a case where peregrinity did not prevail, opposite to the Orléans-Bragança.
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