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Re: U.K. monarch numbering
User logged in as dawillis
Another piece was that England and Scotland were separate countries who happened to be ruled by the same monarch in James II's reign. By the times of the Edwards, they were united into one nation.
The same question was asked by Australia and Canada in 1952, which led to legislation confirming that the Queen would be Elizabeth II in all her realms, and that the future numbering of monarchs would depend on which country of England or Scotland had previously had a monarch with a higher reign number. So in the future if a Prince Robert became king he would be Robert IV because although England had never had a King Robert Scotland had already had three king Roberts.
When King James of Scotland became king of England he seemed to have done so as James I of England while retaining his different reigning number in Scotland. Why does the current monarch, Elizabeth II, intend to be Elizabeth II of the U.K. when Scotland hasn't had an Elizabeth I of their own? Why were the late Edwards numbered as they were when there hadn't been Edwards in Scotland?
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