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Re: New precedent for Prince of Wales title?
I read in many books that one reason for the delay in 1901 was that Queen Alexandra had been the PoW for so long she didn't want someone else to hold the title quite yet.
I'm just wondering if the new king has set a fresh new precedent by conferring the title of Prince of Wales on his heir almost immediately after his accession to the throne (previously there was always a time lag especially in his own case).
Well, for one thing, Charles was a toddler, not quite three and a half, when his mother became sovereign, whereas William is already a middle-aged man with his own family. The last time there were similar circumstances was in 1901, when the Yorks (George, Mary and their children) became the Wales family. Not sure there were compelling protocol reasons for George's delay of several months as compared to William's almost immediate possession of the PoW title.
Will future monarchs now follow suit or revert to the former tradition?
How can anyone know? Past practice, if considered at all nowadays, is at best perceived as a guideline, not a hard rule.