The Franco-Iberian Royals Message Board
[ Post a Response | The Franco-Iberian Royals Message Board ]
King Felipe V
The law regulating the succession in Castile was included in the law of Partidas, published between 1256 and 1265, which was observed until 1713 and restored in 1789/1830. But it had been common law since the creation of the Kingdom.
Yes, Infantas had rights during the Habsburgs. That is why Infantas Ana and Maria Teresa renounced their rights to become Queens of France.
Castilian rules did not apply in Aragon.
What exact succession law did the first Bourbon king of Spain try to institute (or if you will, impose), then -- Salic or semi-Salic? And what was his justification for overturning nearly five centuries of official Castilian law (and as you say before, common law)? Especially since he himself derived his own rights to the Spanish throne through a grandmother who had renounced her own rights to it?