Yes, Infantas had rights during the Habsburgs. That is why Infantas Ana and Maria Teresa renounced their rights to become Queens of France.
Castilian rules did not apply in Aragon.
It has been stated that this is the formal term for the succession law following the order of male-preferred primogeniture (just as the Salic law is the term for fully agnatic primogeniture).
The implication of this term, then, is that it originated in Spain (i.e. the kingdom of Castile). How far does it go back, then? Has this applied to the other kingdoms (e.g. Aragon) since the same time?
And how long has Portugal operated under such a law? I know that in England, it only gradually evolved over the centuries, and got instituted by common law. I'm not sure how the succession law evolved in Scotland, however ...
Was it understood in Habsburg Spain, for instance, that princesses had succession rights? That although behind their brothers in line to the throne, they were ahead of their junior paternal uncles (the younger brothers of their fathers)?
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