For if it came to that, this was not the first time that a member of the princely house of Liechtenstein wed a member of a royal house -- and a reigning one at that: consider the earlier case of Aloys' aunt Theresa, who in 1882 married Prince Arnulf of Bavaria, youngest son of Prince Luitpold (who would eventually serve as regent of the kingdom on behalf of his mentally incapacitated nephews).
As I understand it, that marriage was a perfectly dynastic one, approved by the then-still-reigning Bavarian monarch (the infamous "Mad King Ludwig II"). After all, it presumably was perfectly within the Wittelsbach house laws, since the union involved two sovereign houses.
Or WAS it perhaps initially criticized as a mésalliance? WERE there people who disapproved, on the grounds that Liechtenstein was not a royal house whose members had a noted history of intermarrying with other European dynasties? I believe, in fact, that many of the princes were absentee figures who lived abroad as foreign nobles -- say, in the imperial court of Vienna (just as the Grimaldies of Monaco lived as French nobles in Paris). Indeed, the sovereigns had a history of marrying members of the nobility as "equals". So one had an odd situation whereby a reigning house was thought of as a noble one (even though it was not).
Anyhow, I was just wondering if anybody said anything against King Ludwig II of Bavaria granting consent to his cousin's marriage. Perhaps his uncle Luitpold (the future prince regent) protested?
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