She was styled in Bavaria as Princess Maria de la Paz of bavaria and as Princess Lugwig Ferdinand of Bavaria. I could see in a letter sent to her by King Alfonso XIII. In Spain she was always styled as HRH Infanta Paz , sometimes adding the Princess of Bavaria.
Infantas Amalia and Paz never renounced their rights to the Spanish throne, which required a law, never passed.
Does this means that their children had succession rights in the kingdom of Spain, as well as Bavaria? In that case, they would have been dual dynasts, which is not entirely unheard of, in European royal history.
Of course, they would have been far too down in the line to either throne, anyway, for it to really matter. As such, renunciation or forfeiture of rights would have been irrelevant (which as you say never happened). Oftentimes, a succession dispute arises whenever a genealogically senior branch gets passed over in favor of a junior branch, for whatever reason.
We've seen this in the royal houses of France (Bourbon, meaning the Orléanists vs. the Legitimists) and Bourbon-Two Sicilies (among others). But Prince Adalbert of Bavaria (the one who established the so-called "Spanish branch" of the House of Wittelsbach by marrying Infanta Amelia) was the youngest son of King Ludwig I. So he and his descendants (notwithstanding the fact that the Bavarian succession, unlike the Spanish, is in the male-line only in accordance with the semi-Salic law) had/have virtually no chance in the world of inheriting the position of heading the German dynasty. As of now, Prince Leopold (great-great-grandson of Adalbert and Amelia) is only 15th in the line of succession to the former kingdom.
Of course, questions need to be raised as to whether the marriage in 1919 of his grandfather Adalbert (namesake grandson of Adalbert), whose older brother married into the Spanish royal family, was a dynastic one from the start. I ask because his grandmother was born only Countess Auguste von Seefried -- in other words, a noble (not a royal).
We know that the marriage in 1930 of Albrecht, Duke of Bavaria, to Countess Maria Draskovich, was originally morganatic. It was de-morganatized only later on (in 1949), when his father (Crown Princess Rupprecht) conferred dynastic recognition to the union. In so doing, he amended the Wittelsbach houses laws, so as to permit marriages between princes and women born to the comital rank.
Now to be sure, Countess Auguste was born to a royal mother (Princess Elisabeth of Bavaria), whose own mother was Archduchess Gisela of Austria (daughter of the long-reigning Emperor Franz Joseph). But having royal ancestry certainly does not automatically make you royal, since one's status is generally defined by the father, not the mother.
Unless, of course, one is talking of Spain, where one's maternal heritage is highly valued. But then, we're talking about a German royal house, not Spanish. As always, one must respect differences in rules.
BTW: how exactly were Amelia and Maria de la Paz styled in Bavaria, anyway? Both were born Royal Highnesses, but with the title of Infanta, not Princess. Also, would the "Mrs. Royals" situation applied to either?
The reason for my asking is that Princess Theresa of Liechtenstein had no choice but to style herself as Princess Arnulf of Bavaria, after marrying the youngest son of Prince Luitpold. It was the only way to distinguish herself from her unmarried sister-in-law of the same name. At least she got elevated in her qualifying rank from a Serene Highness to a Royal Highness ...
If Infanta Maria de la Paz of Spain styled herself as Princess Maria of Bavaria, it could have created a lot of confusion, since the future King Ludwig III married an Habsburg archduchess also named Maria. However, it has been stated that Archduchess Maria Theresia of Austria-Este actually styled herself as Princess Ludwig, in order to avoid confusion with that same Princess Theresa of Bavaria.
The trouble with "Princess Ludwig", however, is that King Ludwig I of Bavaria had no fewer than THREE grandsons through sons named after himself. In this, he was not unlike Czar Nicholas I of Russia, who had four grandsons through sons named Nicholas, after himself. So this could have led to the question of just who the husband was ...
Of course, neither Infanta Maria nor Archduchess Maria would have been mistaken as the wife of that kooky King Ludwig II. For one thing, he never married. For another, if either had married him (instead of one of his cousins), she would have been styled with the title of Queen, not just Princess. But then, confusion would have arisen, since Bavaria would have had two queens named Marie/Marie (since Ludwig II's mother survived not just his father but also, himself) ...
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