Was she born with succession rights, only to forfeit them after marrying (in 1856) Prince Adalbert of Bavaria (youngest son of King Ludwig I)? If so, then it goes without saying that her children would have been excluded from the Spanish royal succession.
A similar question applies to her niece, Infanta Maria de la Paz, who in 1883 married her first cousin, Prince Ludwig Ferdinand of Bavaria (elder son of Adalbert and Amelia Filippina). I'm assuming that she likely forfeited her own Spanish succession rights upon marriage, which she presumably was born with (as a daughter of Queen Isabel II) ...
That being said, her own elder son, Prince Ferdinand of Bavaria, married her niece (Infanta Maria Teresa of Spain), younger daughter of King Alfonso XII. As I understand, he left Bavaria and settled in his wife's country, even being created into an Infante of Spain. So I'm assuming that their children had succession rights, just like their mother. Correct?
Of course, Infante Fernando eventually renounced his Bavarian royal titles and succession rights: so it goes without saying that his descendants are excluded from the Bavarian succession. But I believe his male line is on the verge of extinction, anyway ...
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