on 17/10/2022, 12:52:02, in reply to "Re: Charles III's non descent from Charles I and Charles II"
Of course by then, the stock of his family had risen: "Mad" King Ludwig II was deceased, having never married or had any children; his equally insane brother and nominal successor, King Otto, was incarcerated in a mental hospital and no more likely to produce any heirs to the throne. So there was a high likelihood of the Bavarian royal succession falling to his line in the house (his paternal grandfather, Prince Luitpold, was heir-presumptive to the throne and serving as regent of kingdom). So there was no need for anybody to aggressively press a claim on the British throne.
Young children are highly sensitive creatures who often demonstrate a greater awareness and understanding of the events and developments around them, than we adults credit them for. Evidently from early on, the future crown prince was aware of the crisis in the house of Wittelsbach, and his own position within -- meaning that he likely would succeed someday as king. "Mad Ludwig" (his godfather) seemed resigned to the situation, and treated the boy with kindness and charm. Previous Message
If I remember correctly, none the individuals who could make claims of pretence did so after the death the Cardinal Stuart (Henry IX). So no such claim exists, Guy notwithstanding.
I have always found the more romantic and interesting Royal Stuart claim that of the Earl Castle Stewart , who claims to be the senior agnatic representative of the Scottish Royal House of Stuart, being directly descended from Robert II, and all legitimate, genealogically senior lines of agnatic descent having been extinguished.
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