Let’s take Queen Isabel la Catolica:
Juana was HER daughter.
Fernando of Aragon was HER husband.
Now let’s take Fernando of Aragon:
Isabel la Catolica was HIS wife.
Carlos I (Charles the 5th) was HIS son. 
Previous Message
Fernando acted as regent in Castile after Isabel’s death. Juana was in Flanders. When she and her husband arrived and Juana was proclaimed as Queen and declared unfit to rule, her husband claimed the regency and got it. After his death, Fernando acted as regent until his death. When he died, Cardinal Cisneros acted as regent until Carlos came to Spain. Having his grandfather Maximilian proclaimed him as King, the Cortes of Castile and Aragon debated what to do. In the end, he was proclaimed co-sovereign with her mother. So, he was not regent, but King . But in all documents until Juana’s death, she preceded her grandson.
Doña juana e don carlos su hijo por la gracia de dios reyna é rey de castilla é de leon de aragon e de las dos sicilias de jerusalem de navarra de granada de toledo de valencia de galicia de mallorca de sevilla de cerdeña dc cordova de corcega de murcia de jaen de los algarbes de algecira de gibraltar é de las islas de canaria e de las indias islas y tierra firme del mar occeano
condes de barcelona
senores de vixcaya é de molina
duques de atenas é de neopatria
condes de rrosellon é de cerdania
marqueses de oristan é de gociano
archiduques de austria
duques de borgoña é de bravante
condes de flandes é de tirol etc. Previous Message
So it seems that females could actually succeed, instead of serving as mere conduits in the succession ... well, that's better than Liechtenstein today, which does not allow even that much ... at most, a female can transmit succession rights to her male descendants in the male line ...
That being said, if I understand correctly, Juana la Loca was not allowed to rule in either Castile or Aragon: she was declared mentally unfit -- just like some of her famous descendants later on in Bavaria (e.g. "Mad" King Ludwig II and his brother, Otto). Her father first served as regent in Castile, and later on, her son.
And that son, who became the famous powerful Holy Roman Emperor Charles V, served as regent in Aragon after the death of his maternal grandfather. So in the end, Juana was mainly a queen in name only ... Previous Message
Aragon was reluctant to accept female as heirs. Juana had a lot of problems to be sworn in as heir, although it was finally. Previous Message
Just what exactly was the succession law there, anyway, prior to the unification of Spain? I believe it was male-preference primogeniture in most of the other kingdoms (e.g. Castile). The reason for my asking is that I read somewhere that the Aragonese law did not allow females to inherit the throne in their own rights.
Yet, when Infante Juan (the only son of King Fernando II) died, and Infanta Isabel (who by then had become the queen of Portugal, as well as heir presumptive to her mother, Queen Isabel I of Castile) gave birth to a son, that son (Infante Miguel de la Paz) was automatically first in line to the throne of Aragon.
Despite bypassing his mother in the succession (perhaps a moot point, in light of the fact that she died in childbirth), such a thing obviously would not have been possible, had the kingdom been bound by the Salic law -- like in France. As it was, Miguel was immediately recognized -- even welcomed -- as heir presumptive to his maternal grandfather ...
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on 17/9/2023, 1:47:18, in reply to "