on 23/3/2023, 3:28:15
I know that a person transmits only his father's surname to his children. So this gets me wondering about dynastic names: both Queen Maria II and her niece, Princess Imperial Isabel of Brazil, were members of the house of Braganza. Accordingly, their children would likewise have all been Braganzas as well.
But what of their grandchildren? Can a son who inherits his mother's surname transmit this to his own children? As I understand, Isabel still has male-line descendants today: of course, they're all members of the house of Orléans, since they all claim King Louis-Philippe of the French as a patrilineal ancestor.
However, I've noticed that they're all styled with the hyphentated name Orléans-Braganza: does this mean that despite acquiring a surname through a female, it can nevertheless continue in perpetuity through the male line of descent?
I believe that the male-line grandchildren and great-grandchildren of Queen Maria II of Portugal were also recognized as Braganzas (although her descent in the male line eventually became extinct).
In Spain, the reason that the Bourbon house name got preserved was that Queen Isabel II married an agnate -- her first cousin, Infante Francisco. But her Portuguese counterpart married (as her second husband) Prince Ferdinand of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha -- not her uncle Miguel (as had been expected).
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