What about the rest of royal Europe, however? Did they acknowledge the daughters of Fernando VII as the rightful heirs to the kingdom of Spain?
It has been stated that house A might have different rules on succession from house B (regarding gender rights and the *equality of birth* requirements for dynastic marriages), but the two will nevertheless respect each other's rules.
So France, for instance, operated under the Salic law, but would presumably have accepted that other countries may not have. For why was it necessary to underscore the fact that a princess could not inherit the French throne and become a queen in her own right, other than the awareness that neighboring Spain and nearby Portugal did allow such a thing? I know that there have been numerous intermarriages between these royal dynasties, understanding that accepting these differences. Heck, there was even a French princess who became the queen of Portugal, as the consort of a king whose mother had been a queen regnant (i.e. Maria II)!
Anyhow, getting back to my original subject, I was wondering how other countries reacted to the Spanish succession dispute -- whether they accepted the Salic law that King Felipe V tried to impose on the country (notwithstanding the fact that he himself had inherited the throne through his Spanish-born grandmother).