To clarify: did the renunciation apply only to male descendants in the male line? I would assume so, since the throne of France was bound by the Salic law (unlike the throne of Spain, something King Felipe V had a hard time in understanding or accepting). As such, it should have been perfectly legitimate for a Spanish princess to marry into the French royal family, and then give birth to sons who had succession rights in France.
Did any Infanta of Spain descended from King Felipe V actually marry into royal house of Bourbon? Or perhaps the imperial house of Bonaparte? I understand that Queen Marie Amélie of the French (consort of King Louis-Philippe, House of Orléans) was born Princess Maria Amalia of Bourbon-Two Sicilies, and hence was a direct descendant of this French prince-turned Spanish king. But she obviously was not an Infanta of Spain by birth ...
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