Of course, being a Spanish prince is not (technically speaking) the same thing as being an Infante of Spain: that didn't happen until 1914, when he was formally created into one. By then, he had moved to and settled permanently in the homeland of his wife (Infanta Maria Teresa): I believe he became naturalized as a citizen, after a period of residency. If nothing else, he renounced his Bavarian royal title and succession rights to the kingdom (not that he ever had much of a chance of inheriting it, anyway).
Given that he was an *equally* born prince of royal blood, and husband of a wife with succession rights, his status would have been comparable to that of Archduke Lorenz of Austria (who was declared a prince of Belgium in 1995, four years after his wife and children were inserted into the Belgian royal succession).
That being said, I'm still wondering if -- given the technical difference -- he was (from the beginning) regarded as a Spanish prince, and member of the royal house of Bourbon in Spain. I suppose the question would apply to his younger siblings (Prince Adalbert and Princess Pilar of Bavaria) as well, despite the fact that neither relocated to their mother's home country.
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