Are there any proves that they DID approve their own marriages previously to the cerimony or did they just decide they wanted to marry the ladies in question and they went along ?
If Felipe, William, W-A, Haakon-Magnus, Frederik were kings at the time they got married with their commoner wives, as heads of their RH's they would just go along w/o any discussion or asking permission.
In any of these cases is there a Parliament request ? (I think there is so in NL or UK).
In non-regnant houses, things seem to be taken more seriously.
Pr. Leopold Franz, heir to the House of Tuscany, was first married to the daughter of the Marquis de Belzunce, later adopted by her mother's 2nd husband, the Duke of Arenberg, who gave her his name.
AFAIK an adoption does not confer an entry to the Almanach of Gotha and the lady remained a born Belzunce, and in spite of that their marriage was considered equal.
When Pr. Leopold Franz remarried to a commoner, in 1993, he renounced his rights of head of the Tuscan branch in favour of his eldest son, Pr.Sigismond.
Was this due to his unequal marriage ?
Odd, because in 1999, Sigismond himself also married unequally and retained the headship of the house as his marriage was not considered morganatic.
The honourable thing to do, of course, is, if one thinks the chosen lady (or man) is not at the height, step aside and live the path.
With all the pressure that surrounded it, it was the case of Edward VIII, that, though the King, could not have his own wedding approved.
Are there any other examples of Heads of Houses, regnant or not, that voluntarily stepped aside due to unequal marriages, and left the path to the spare ?
I don't mean cases like the elder sons of Pr. Louis-Ferdinand of Prussia or Pr. Karl-Emich of Leiningen who were disinherited by their parents.
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