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Re: Queen Geraldine of the Albanians
User logged in as RoyalOrchid
Her Majesty did not "insist" on being styled Queen Mother, she was given the title by the Albanian National Assembly in Exile in 1961 when it acknowledged the accession of her son as King in exile. Leka was always known as, and referred to as, King Leka I and therefore it was only right and correct to refer to his mother as Queen Mother. I acknowledge that the titles were an anomaly given the family were no longer reigning, but at one time in the late 1960s it did seem that there was a chance of a restoration so the continued use of titles (and creation of new ones) was a significant political act by the Albanian National Assembly in Exile.
As an aside, the mother of King Zog I was never a queen but the National Assembly of Albania gave her the title of Queen Mother when her son acceded to the throne.
Why did she insist on styling herself as Queen Mother, after the death of her husband (King Zog), when her son never even became king (as the monarchy got abolished before he could succeed to the throne)? Prince Leka was only a pretender, not sovereign. I remain perplexed by this title ...
That being said, having read several biographies of King Ludwig II of Bavaria, I have largely become resigned to authors referring to his mother as the "Queen Mother" -- despite the fact that this title (to the best of my knowledge) never got formally used in Germany. After all, that's what Marie technically was, after obtaining dowager status in 1864
It's just that I wish the said biographers would place the words in lower-case letters, since "queen mother" is largely a descriptive term. I believe she was the only queen of Bavaria to meet the qualifications for one (i.e. the widow of a king who was also the mother of another).