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There are similar issues with kings named James and queens named Elizabeth, of England and Scotland. I believe it has been customary to use two postnominal regnal numbers (e.g. "King James VI/I") -- with the higher number coming first.
The present queen is technically Elizabeth II/I, but obviously doesn't style herself first. Similarly, Queen Isabel II of Spain should really have been Isabel II of Castile, Isabel I elsewhere ...
James I of England was also James VI of Scotland. He was the first King of England with that name, but the sixth King of Scots.
The current British Queen is not "technically" Elizabeth II/I. What would she be Queen Elizabeth I of? She is not Queen of Scots.
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