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Posted by manuel on 10/10/2019, 23:48:53, in reply to "Re: uw
Then Isabel and Fernando should not be included. When Isabel died, Fernando ceased to be King of Castile. He was not King regnant of Castile. Their case is not similar to William and Mary of GB.
But , according to the Act of marriage between Philip and Mary, I would say that their legal status was similar to their ancestors Isabel and Fernando. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Act_for_the_Marriage_of_Queen_Mary_to_Philip_of_Spain
I believe Felipe II was only King-consort in England and not co-ruler.
In Spain, like her parents, Juana I , together with Felipe I (Duke of Burgundy). Other examples in the Spanish medieval Kingdoms. When a woman inherited the throne, her husband ruled and even inherited the throne, like in the union between the Kingdom of Aragon and the County of Barcelona.
Felipe II of Spain and Mary I of England could be also considered as another example, although he did not get an ordinal as King of England.
Can anybody provide a list of these, throughout European royal history? Off the top of my head, I can name the following --
Queen Isabel I of Castel and King Fernando V of Aragon
Czar Ivan V and Czar Peter I ("The Great") of Russia
Queen Maria I and King Pedro III of Portugal
King William III (House of Orange) and Queen Maria II (House of Stuart) of Great Britain
- uw - Jane 10/10/2019, 13:26:01
- Re: uw - Johan 10/10/2019, 18:33:37
- Re: uw - Josť 10/10/2019, 20:34:11
- Re: uw - Bjarne Birkrem 13/10/2019, 1:32:11
- Re: uw - Josť 16/10/2019, 12:57:19
- Re: uw - manuel 10/10/2019, 19:57:47
- Re: uw - Johan 10/10/2019, 21:52:46
- Re: uw - manuel 10/10/2019, 23:48:53
- Re: uw - Johan 11/10/2019, 0:02:11
- uw? - Robert 13/10/2019, 12:19:33
- Re: uw? - Jane 13/10/2019, 14:38:21
- Re: uw? - Robert 16/10/2019, 11:25:46
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