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Posted by apaman I AM the only man besides her father that she has been close to that hasn't exploited her. I understand all that but don't you think after 21yrs and 2 OM getting it from her, One absolutely voluntarily, that I should deserve at least a good kiss? At what point does she trust me? At what point can she let her guard down. At what point do I become someone she wishes to give to instead of recieve from? Notice I said she almost always has 2 O's when we have sex. Notice I said I give her whatever she wants, notice she gave the OM whatever he wanted.I mean at what point is there at least some fairness here? I don't care what the act is/are I just want to be persued like she did the OM, not just sexually. I mean I tried for 2 yrs to get her to go out with me. First date she wanted to have sex. I refused, I wasn't like that. Maybe I hurt her that night by refusing her and she has never been the same. I don't know exactly what the whole story is, but I do know it is frustrating, complicated and getting harder to handle all the time.
on 10/22/2004, 7:53 pm, in reply to "I disagree"
Message modified by user apaman 10/23/2004, 12:06 am
Easy Girl...I appreciate your passion on this subject of passion, but you are putting too much emphasis on the act of OS and AS. I have NEVER once asked or wanted my wife to perform AS...it's not me....now os is another matter but I assure you I bet we haven't has sex more than 10times in 21yrs that I didn't give her OS. No joking, she enjoys it, so do I, I give it to her, have since our first time. When I have had bouts of impotentcy, I have given her OS to O many many times. But the 'feeling' isn't mutual. I have only felt it once.
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