Posted by Rico
![]()

![]()
on 4/11/2009, 7:50:20
115.130.34.44
This question has probably been asked a million times but I was wondering.
If a princess by marriage on the continents is given the title in her own right (or is one by birth but married into another royal house), is she styled as such while in the UK or does she use the femenine of her husbands title as the british consorts do?
examples, Princess Maxima?
Princess Astrid (her own or the Archducal title?)
Message Thread:
![]()
« Back to thread