I thought I had posted an answer to Jose, but sth happened.
All Spanish Kings have an ordinal, even being the first of their names: Luis I and Juan Carlos I.
Francisco the Asis was King consort. So, no ordinal.
I'm sure Manuel knows the answer to your question about the possible future regnal number of a son of Leonor. But, it's interesting to me also that Portugal has that system you describe of regnal numbers for the male spouse of a female monarch. I've never heard about that before.
Kings that are the first to use a name don't usually have the number I.
Victoria is not Victoria I unless there will be a Victoria II.
In the doubtful case that Leonor's first born would be named Francisco, would he be styled Francisco I or the II ?
In Portugal, the two King Consortes D.Pedro, D.Maria I's husband and D.Fernando, D.Naria II's husband, both had a regal number - D.Pedro III and D.Fernando II.
As there has never been a king Francisco in Spain, before or after king Francisco de Assis, would he be considered Francisco I in case of a future namesake ?
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