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Were all the children born to the marriages of Prince Adalbert of Bavaria to Infanta Amelia Filippina of Spain, Prince Ludwig Ferdinand of Bavaria and Infanta Maria de la Paz of Spain, regarded from birth as members of the house of Bourbon, as well as Wittelsbach?
Absolutely not.
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I ask this because of the Spanish naming system, according to which a child derives his name and status from both parents -- with the father's coming first, of course. I know that of the said children mentioned above, only Prince Ferdinand (born 1884) was created into an Infante of Spain by grace, when marrying Infanta Maria Teresa. And, of course, their own children were styled as Infante/Infanta of Spain (in addition to their Bavarian royal titles, which were eventually forfeited when their father renounced them on their behalf).
The others were only princes and princesses of Bavaria.
Bourbon is doing double duty In these instances... where it is the father’s name, it is also the house name. Where it is the mother’s name, it is just that... The present king is not a member of the House of Greece despite being ‘de Borbón y de Grecia’.
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I was just interested in the subject of names, whatever might be said about titles -- whether the children born to these intermarriages between Bourbons and Wittelsbachs were referred to in Spain as "Wittelsbach and Bourbon."
Pretty sure they were ‘de Baviera y de Borbón’. The Bavarian Royal Family didn’t use Wittelsbach as a name despite it being their genealogical house.