User logged in as Charles
Are they explicitly recognized (that is, listed) or implicitly (that is, unlisted and left up to the King)?
Was there ever any discussion among members of the court of the Holy Roman Emperors and Emperors of Austria of the Spanish king's use of the title 'Archduke of Austria', etc?
It sort of reminds of me of the King of England, Scotland, France and Ireland and the King of France and Navarre...
Message Thread | Skip to this response ↓
« Back to index