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Are they explicitly recognized (that is, listed) or implicitly (that is, unlisted and left up to the King)?
Was there ever any discussion among members of the court of the Holy Roman Emperors and Emperors of Austria of the Spanish king's use of the title 'Archduke of Austria', etc?
It sort of reminds of me of the King of England, Scotland, France and Ireland and the King of France and Navarre...
: . Meanwhile the title of
: Archduke of Austria, duke of Burgundy, etc,
: continued to be included among the full
: titles of the Kings of Spain until the end
: of the monarchy in 1931.
: Those titles, belonging to the Crown, are
: recognised by the present constitution. So,
: "until the end of the monarchy in 1931
: and since the restoration in 1975"
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