Posted by Jane
on 8/8/2009, 18:33:34, in reply to "Re: death of Felicitas Princess of Prussia, Mrs von Nostiz-Wallnitz"
216.125.239.26
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: Does that mean that in 1940 he recognized the
: marriage as equal?
Not strictly *equal*, but dynastic nonetheless (hence the Princess title with the qualification of Royal Highness). One should realize that the two are not synonymous -- although prior to World War I, they were from a PRACTICAL standpoint.
If it came to that, very few European houses have actually had EBENBUERTIGKEIT as an official dynastic law. Rather, it typically would get unofficially enforced, when it came to marital standards (i.e. the decision to confer or withhold consent).
And even for those who had this as a legal marital requirement, the interpretation of *equality* was flexible, fluent, or subject to interpretation by the sovereign (e.g. the Leuchtenbergs, accepted as dynastic spouses in Sweden, Russia, and Brazil).
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