--Previous Message--
: King Leopold stipulated and made it clear
: after his civil was announced that his wife
: wouldn't bear the title of 'queen' and none
: of the children (sons at that time) would be
: in line of the succession to the throne.
: Technically it was not a morganatic marriage
: and Lilian was HRH Princess Lilian of
: Belgium, like the three children were and
: the surviving two daughters still are HRH
: Princess Marie-Christine of Belgium, HRH
: Princess Esmeralda of Belgium and the late
: HRH Prince Alexander of Belgium.
:
Did the King really have the right to deprive his youngest son (Alexandre) of his successional rights?
: --Previous Message--
:
:
: --Previous Message--
: The example of Leopold III shows that a
: monarch does not need consent from the
: government or parliament to marry and remain
: on the throne.
:
:
: I had King Leopold in mind when I asked the
: question. If he didn't need the Parliament's
: consent, then why weren't his children from
: the second children seen as dynasts?
:
: It is however the government who since are
: the ones who can offer the new spouse
: her/his own title.
: The difference is clear between HRH princess
: Claire of Belgium and HRH princess Alexandre
: of Belgium. The first was given her own
: title upon her wedding the second wasn't.
:
: --Previous Message--
: According to the Belgium Constitution a
: member
: of the royal family can loose his (or her)
: rights by marrying without consent of the
: King (art. 85).
:
: So I would say no.
:
: There is one 'however': I don't know how
: 'the King' should be read in the Belgium
: Constitution. In the Dutch Constitution the
: term 'The King' should in some cases be
: translated in 'the government'. If the same
: applies in Belgium it would mean that the
: government had to approve of the marriage
: and they will probably only give that
: consent after approval of the parliament.
:
: --Previous Message--
: Did King Baudouin have to seek the
: Parliament's consent before marrying Fabiola
: de Mora y Aragon?
:
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